philippians 2:6
Grant
grant at cajun.net
Tue Dec 21 07:45:11 EST 1999
There was a reply to the scripture that there is a 3rd position of the Eastern Orthodox community. Yet, this position or interpretation of passage was not so clear. A little clarification would be welcomed.
It was also stated about the danger of heretics. Personally, I believe that we could all be labeled heretics due to the difference in opinion. Ultimately, the one who truly feels his position is "correct" will thus consider opposiong view points heresy. One thing that must be remembered is that none of us have the entire truth (I speak for myself likewise) such as Jesus' very apostles didn't know all things--the companions of the source of Christology! Jesus did prophesy that heresy or apostasy would set in and the writers at Jude 1:4, 2 John 1:7, 2 Thessalonians 2:3-5, and Act 20:29 testify to it.
I think whether they are guided by a spirit of God is determined in their love for righteousness and most importantly--their works that visibly manifest it. Titus 1:16: "They publicly declare they know God, but they disown him by their works, because they are detestable and disobedient and not approved for good work of any sort." Compare James 2:26
I have recently been doing a study of many "controversial" translations of different scriptures and Philippians 2:6 had its place. Two sides seem to have convincing arguments (to themselves at the very least).
But my original question as I intended is: "What is the Greek's meaning?
Strictly speaking about translation, I would appreciate a "grammatical" translation forgetting theology the same as we would do if we were studying sanskrit and were translating the Vedas and weren't Buddhists monk.
It seems now as I look at the context, 3 things are obvious
a) we're encouraged to have the attitude of Jesus
b) Jesus' attitude- "humble" ex. didn't try to get equality with God
c) God recognized this and rewarded him
that simple? Or is there more? No doubt.
The quesion most important is: "How would the Philippian congregation respond to this scripture? After all, it was written to them.
The whole picture of this verse now seems to be in sharp focus. Consider the following:
A Trinitarian viewpoint will of course maintain Jesus as God's Son (relationship between the 1st and 2nd person of the triad). So they will either argue that a) Jesus didn't try for equality since he had it or b)Jesus tried for. And this agreeable according to their theology since it is logical to their mind frame.
On the other hand, the group exists that claim that the designation "God's Son" is a literal statement, namely, the actual son OF God, from him, and so on. They will use Philippians 2:6 as a proof of their faith in that Jesus can't be God (in terms of consubstantialness) or that he has no equality in terms of YHWH's ultimate authority or rulership. Yet, they will also claim that Jesus is divine which indeed the scriptures do support.
Nevertheless, I will still emphasis the fact that the Paul wrote the Philippian congregation as counsel. I guess the question remains: "What understanding agrees with the intention of Paul and with the probable understanding of the congregation?"
But, nevertheless, one will argue that Christology was undevelop and that, therefore, this is no proof. Can't please everybody? aye?
So I conclude that there are 2 sides each who (either through ostenstible truth or cunning lies) have agreeing arguments; each have their variations in understanding.
Sincerely,
Grant Polle
Louisiana, USA
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