1 John 2:1
Stevens, Charles C
Charles.Stevens at unisys.com
Tue Dec 21 18:04:42 EST 1999
The citation in 1JO 2:1 is not an "it" at all, but a *verb* -- the subphrase
"MH hAMARTHTE" being something along the lines of "in order that you not
sin".
To conclude that the *noun* "sin" in this passage is referring to something
occurring millennia before is incompatible with the fact that the word is in
fact a *verb* describing action on the part of the addressees, and to draw
theological or logical conclusions from that which the *noun* is describing
in that passage does not strike me as sound logic.
The first ROM 5:12 citation is also a specific *action* that has inherited
consequences (and is a noun -- hAMARTIA) according to context; the second is
a verb phrase, approximately "inasmuch as all sinned", not "inasmuch as all
inherited that sin".
Your assertion that ROM 5:12 is a description of the inheritance of Adam's
sin *itself*, as distinct from inheritance of the *consequences* of that sin
-- including both death and the *tendency* to commit sin --does not strike
me as a conclusion that may be presumed irrefutably and concretely solely
from this Greek text. It is a particular theological perspective that many,
but certainly not all, on this list hold, but this passage cannot be
demonstrated either to prove or presume that perspective.
The citation in 1JO 1:8 is also a noun; I see nothing in either of these
passages to conclude that the author is referring to *original* sin as
distinct from the individual actions of the addressees. Paraphrasing these
two passages "I write to try to help keep you from going off track" is not
incompatible with "every one of us goes off track" in my view, theologically
or logically.
It looks a bit to me like you're operating under the assumption that
hAMARTIA and its variants (verbal as well as nominal, arthrous as well as
anarthrous) carry the partial connotation "original" along with the basic
"sin". I would argue that isn't supportable in any sort of general way.
Furthermore, it's long been my impression that "sin" in English has the
basic connotation "actions redolent of fundamental moral corruption and
evil", whereas hAMARTANW (the verb form) stems etymologically from "miss the
target" in military terminology and doesn't, in my opinion, carry nearly as
much "corruption" connotation as the English. I believe the same is true of
the Hebrew root cheyth, teyth, aleph that is translated using these Greek
terms very frequently in the Septuagint.
-Chuck Stevens
-----Original Message-----
From: Grant [mailto:grant at cajun.net]
Sent: Tuesday, December 21, 1999 1:50 PM
To: Biblical Greek
Subject: 1 John 2:1
1 John 2:1 "My little children I am writing you these things that you may
not ` commit a sin..."
TEKNIA MOU TAUTA GRAFW hYMIN hINA MH hAMARTHTE
Is hAMARTHTE a specific sin or sin in general? Is he here referring to the
inherited sin that Romans 5:12 mentions or rather a sin that would involve a
wrongdoing different from regular imperfection?
I just found it quite strange that he "writes so that they do not commit a
sin" when
1 John 1:8 tells us that to make the statement: "We have no sin" then
constitutes us as a liar.
I seriously doubt John was contradicting himself a few verse later. He most
likely had something else in mind. Does the Greek reveal anything I am
missing?
Sincerely,
Grant Polle
Louisiana, USA
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