Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1-4

Steven Craig Miller scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Wed Dec 22 09:50:26 EST 1999


To: Solomon Landers,

<< AUTOS is a pronoun that takes the gender of its antecedent. In John 1:1, 
AUTOU is the same form in both the genitive singular masculine and the 
genitive singular nueter, but since it refers to hO LOGOS (masculine), a 
better translation would be "he, him." >>

Why would "he, him" be a better translation? The pronouns AUTOU & AUTWi are 
only masculine because the Greek term LOGOS is grammatically masculine. But 
in English the term "word" is considered to be a "thing," and normally in 
English we would refer to such a term as "it." Grammatically, it seems to 
me that "it" would be the better translation.

-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Disclaimer: "I'm just a simple house-husband (with no post-grad degree), 
what do I know?"




More information about the B-Greek mailing list