Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1-4
Steven Craig Miller
scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Wed Dec 22 09:50:26 EST 1999
To: Solomon Landers,
<< AUTOS is a pronoun that takes the gender of its antecedent. In John 1:1,
AUTOU is the same form in both the genitive singular masculine and the
genitive singular nueter, but since it refers to hO LOGOS (masculine), a
better translation would be "he, him." >>
Why would "he, him" be a better translation? The pronouns AUTOU & AUTWi are
only masculine because the Greek term LOGOS is grammatically masculine. But
in English the term "word" is considered to be a "thing," and normally in
English we would refer to such a term as "it." Grammatically, it seems to
me that "it" would be the better translation.
-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Disclaimer: "I'm just a simple house-husband (with no post-grad degree),
what do I know?"
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