John 1:1 pronouns
George Goolde
goolde at mtnempire.net
Wed Dec 22 12:19:25 EST 1999
Steven Craig Miller wrote:
Why would "he, him" be a better translation? The pronouns AUTOU & AUTWi
are
only masculine because the Greek term LOGOS is grammatically masculine.
But
in English the term "word" is considered to be a "thing," and normally in
English we would refer to such a term as "it." Grammatically, it seems to
me that "it" would be the better translation.
- - - - - - - - - -- - - - -
Unless, of course, someone believed/concluded that "Word" here referred to
the name or title of a person, in which case the same logic would cause the
pronouns to be translated as masculine.
George
George A. Goolde
Professor, Bible and Theology
Southern California Bible College & Seminary
El Cajon, California
goolde at mtnempire.net
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