John 8:58 (I am; Does the Hebrew reveal?)

Steven Craig Miller scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Fri Dec 24 13:35:06 EST 1999


To: Bill Ross,

SCM: << What is clear here is that the words hO WN ("the one who is") are 
the key words here. It is the phrase hO WN which is repeated and which 
stand for the name of Yahweh, and not the words EGW EIMI. This is 
absolutely clear in the LXX: >>

BR: << In amazing brevity [at Ex 3:14] He revealed that He is the "One that 
Is, the One the Was, and the One Who Will Be." When Jesus said "I AM," 
although He was not using the Septuagint phrase, the
Name that is still unspoken by Jews except in prayer, He did wonderfully 
and poetically declare that He "IS" in a timeless sense. >>

In my opinion, there is absolutely no grammatical justification for 
assuming that the Greek words EGW EIMI can << wonderfully and poetically 
declare that He "IS" in a timeless sense. >> That seems to me to be a 
grammatical fallacy. But rather than merely stating that I disagree with 
your assertion. Let me ask, where did you pick up this notion? I would be 
curious to learn, what grammarians or biblical scholars hold this position 
which you have just presented?

-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Disclaimer: "I'm just a simple house-husband (with no post-grad degree), 
what do I know?"




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