Pronouns in John 1:1 and 1 John 1:1-4

KJohn36574 at aol.com KJohn36574 at aol.com
Sun Dec 26 19:01:36 EST 1999


Interpretation of the Hebrew Tanakh vs the Greek LXX has little to do with 
the different translations of Gen. 1:1 as the Hebrew has been translated both 
ways as Steve has correctly pointed out, by Hebrew scholars.

Steven is possibly working from the notion of the LXX influence on 
translating the Hebrew rendering of Gen. 1:1 into English, although I'm not 
convinced all translators who use, "In the beginning" are necessarily doing 
it only through consideration of the LXX and its influence on English bible 
format and translation.

What I am saying has alot more going for it than the "timing" of the creation 
of the earth. It has to do with the facts that John quotes the OT much more 
than any synoptic writer, and was one of the Sons of Thunder, who suggested 
the Lord call down fire on the unbelieving Samaritans. He was a radical 
Palistinian Jew who was a strict monotheist. I just don't believe, even as a 
Hellenistic Jew, he thought as much about saving Greek philosophers as Jewish 
unbelievers in Ephesus, who were everywhere their. But these are authorship 
and background issues that go even beyond the background of the use of 
vocabulary in a portion of Scripture.
Lets remember Paul was Saul of Tarsus and steeped in Greek philosophy, but 
spent little time discussion doctrine along the lines of Grecian thought even 
when writing to Greeks in the Church. Christ came first to the lost sheep of 
Israel, and so did Paul and the other Apostles.
The Jerusalem Church has much more to say on Christian beginnings/thought 
than the Church in Rome or Athens.

But this is history and not grammar studies I'm talking about. But then 
again, who can study vocabulary usage fully without knowledge of  
historical/cultural backgrounds of that language's usage and author? How and 
why should one feel he/she must do that?

Ken Johnson
Elk Grove, CA
KJohn36574 at aol.com



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