Question on John 17:3

Jay Adkins JAdkins264 at aol.com
Tue Dec 28 06:10:28 EST 1999


Therefore if hON APESTEILAS in 'TON MONON ALHQINON QEON KAI hON APESTEILAS' 
is a substantive, why does the lack of article before hON APESTEILAS not 
make this a GS construction?
Sincerely, 
Dan 

Dear Dan,

The GS rule is not used in John 17:3 mainly do I think to the use of a 
proper name, "Jesus."

There appears to be only 3 passages (according to Wallace) in the NT that 
have Christologically significance wherein the Granville Sharp rule clearly 
applies (Titus 2:13; 2 Pet 1:1; 1 John 5:20).  The rule itself has been 
used with several other texts with uncertain textual variants (Acts 20:28; 
Jude 4) "and others had proper names (Eph 5:5; 2 Thess 1:12; 1 Tim 5:21; 2 
Tim 4:1)."  (Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, page 276)

The TSKS construction has further limitations to be considered before it 
comes under the GS rule.  "(1). Neither is impersonal; (2) neither is 
plural; (3) neither is a proper name" (Wallace, page 272).

As I am but the Littlest of Greeks could some else please confirm this.

Sola Gratia.
Jay
Always Under Grace!



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