Pluperfect in John 7:30

Larsendon at aol.com Larsendon at aol.com
Mon Feb 8 08:04:40 EST 1999


Dear Carl,
Thanks for your thoughtful response!  Forgive my lack of clarity on one point.
I did 
recognize OUPW as meaing "not yet," but I wonder why John chose to use the
pluperfect of ERCOMAI in 7:30.  In this verse, it is clearly the narrator's
voice we are
hearing. This differs from 2:4, where Jesus is clearly the speaker.  In direct
discourse,
Jesus uses the perfective present hHKEI.  But in 7:30 and in 8:20, the
narrator uses a pluperfect.  Why?  Does he employ ELHLUQEI because, from his
standpoint, 
he thinks of Jesus' hour as having definite duration - a duration which is
complete and
"no longer" in effect at the time of writing?  
Thanks,
Don Larsen
Hartford, CT  



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