B-Greekers, Is there any significance (and what is it) for Peter's use of the aorist of POIMANW in 1 Pet 5.2 (in his command to the elders of the church to shepherd the flock of God). This in comparison to Paul's use of the present of POIMANW in Acts 20.28 (same command). Is it because in Acts we have an infinitive? Thank you, Francisco Orozco