relative pronoun in Mk 1:44
Jeffrey B. Gibson
jgibson000 at mailhost.chi.ameritech.net
Wed Jun 2 13:23:56 EDT 1999
Several questions:
First, is the relative pronoun in Mk 1:44 (the neuter plural A) an
instance in which the RP is used with what Wallace calls an imbedded
antecedent?
Second, is this use, if it be so, of the RP with a demonstrative pronoun
incorporated with in it ("those things which) characteristic of Mark. Can
such usage be found elsewhere in his Gospel.
Third, is there any real distinction between the meaning of PROSENEKKON TO
DWRON hO ktl in Matt 8:4 and Mark' s PROSENEKE .... A PROSETAXEN ktl.?
Thanks,
Jeffrey Gibson
--
Jeffrey B. Gibson
7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
Chicago, Illinois 60626
e-mail jgibson000 at ameritech.net
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