Why an instantaneous imperfect in Mark 8:24?

Jay Adkins JAdkins264 at aol.com
Thu Jun 24 11:40:04 EDT 1999


Dear B-Greekers,

Why must the 3rd person, imperfect, active, indicative verb ELEGEN be 
understood as a instantaneous imperfect in Mark 8:24?

KAI ANABLEYAS ELEGEN: BLEPW TOUS ANQROPOUS hOTI hWS DENDRA hORW 
PERIPATOUNTAS.

8:24   Then he looked up and kept saying, "I am seeing men, because as 
trees I am perceiving walking."

The context would, to me, seem to support this translation if, due to the 
blind man's confusion, he kept repeating himself.  Is this impossible? Or 
just highly improbable? Or within the realm of reason?  Wallace has used 
this as an example of the instantaneous imperfect and 18 English 
translations I have checked appear to agree, although there are some 
textual variants that have either the aorist or {historical} present form, 
the TR uses the same form as Nestle.  I should probable stop asking this 
question why, it sure slows up the process.

Jay Adkins



More information about the B-Greek mailing list