1 peter 4:1,2

UpoXarin at aol.com UpoXarin at aol.com
Tue Jun 29 22:40:24 EDT 1999


I just have some questions about gramatical constructs in this passage.  i am 
stiudying it for a class at church.  The first is about genitive absolutes.  
Do they function like english nomative absolutes?  My book on English grammar 
said that an absolute modifies not one part in a sentence but the whole 
sentence.  Eg.  "The foreman being absent, I was given the order".  The 
absolute "the foreman being absent"  modifies the whole clause "i was given 
the order" and just a part of it.  Therefore, does the genitive absolute 
"XRISTOU PAQONTOS"  modify the rest of verse 1 and 2?  Is it the cause of the 
rest of Peter's exhortation?  I just want to make sure that i am not reading 
English grammar on to the Greek text.
	Second, I am having trouble with the phrase "hO PAQWN SARKI PEPAUTAI 
hAMARTIAS".  Any suggestions on the interpretation of this verse would gladly 
be accepted offlist, but my main questionis about the articular participle.  
Robertson and Wallace (author's of greek grammars) both contend that a 
participle with the definite article suggests a general situation and does 
not usually refer to a specific person.  This would be an argument against 
the referent of the participle being only Christ.  Thanks a bunch.

Jonathan Brubaker
upoxarin at aol.com



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