Does Mark 8:7 use an imperative infinitive' ?
Ben Crick
ben.crick at argonet.co.uk
Sun May 9 22:13:24 EDT 1999
On Sun 9 May 99 , jadkins264 at aol.com wrote:
> Also let me ask one more question. Why "EIPEN must be understood to have
> the sense EKELEUSEN"? I do not question you are correct, I just want
> to understand why you are correct. Why not 'He instructed them' for
> example?
Well, Jay: as one little Greek to another:
I sometimes find that Jerome sheds new light on a difficult Greek passage
in his /Biblia Sacra Vulgata/. At Mark 8:7 Jerome translates
et habebant pisciculos paucos et ipsos benedixit et iussit adponi
KAI EICON ICQUDIA OLIGA KAI EULOGHSAS AUTA EIPEN KAI TAUTA PARATIQENAI
Ignoring the finite verb /benedixit/ for the participle EULOGHSAS, we see
that Jerome translates EIPEN as "commanded" or "ordered" (iussit), with
the passive infinitive.
Compare Luke 7:7, where the centurion says to Jesus "but say in a word,
and my servant shall be healed" ALLA EIPE LOGWi, KAI IAQHTW hO PAIS MOU.
Here we have the verb ERW clearly used in the sense of issuing an order.
HTH
ERRWSQE
Ben
--
Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
<ben.crick at argonet.co.uk>
232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)
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