Does Mark 8:7 use an imperative infinitive' ?

Ben Crick ben.crick at argonet.co.uk
Sun May 9 22:13:24 EDT 1999


On Sun  9 May 99 , jadkins264 at aol.com wrote:
> Also let me ask one more question. Why "EIPEN must be understood to have 
> the sense EKELEUSEN"?  I do not question you are correct, I just want
> to  understand why you are correct.  Why not 'He instructed them' for
> example?

 Well, Jay: as one little Greek to another:

 I sometimes find that Jerome sheds new light on a difficult Greek passage
 in his /Biblia Sacra Vulgata/. At Mark 8:7 Jerome translates

 et habebant pisciculos paucos   et ipsos benedixit   et iussit adponi
 KAI EICON ICQUDIA OLIGA­ KAI EULOGHSAS AUTA EIPEN KAI TAUTA PARATIQENAI

 Ignoring the finite verb /benedixit/ for the participle EULOGHSAS, we see
 that Jerome translates EIPEN as "commanded" or "ordered" (iussit), with
 the passive infinitive.

 Compare Luke 7:7, where the centurion says to Jesus "but say in a word,
 and my servant shall be healed" ALLA EIPE LOGWi, KAI IAQHTW hO PAIS MOU.
 Here we have the verb ERW clearly used in the sense of issuing an order.

 HTH

 ERRWSQE
 Ben
-- 
 Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
 <ben.crick at argonet.co.uk>
 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)
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