John 5:26

John Oaklands j_m_oaklands at yahoo.com.au
Sun May 9 20:56:12 EDT 1999



Thank you George. You seem to me to be on track and what you wrote is
quite helpful.

John

--- George Blaisdell <maqhth at hotmail.com> wrote:
> 
> 
> >From: John Oaklands
> 
> >Hi
> 
> Hello John ~
> 
> >How is EDWKEN understood in John 5:26?  Does this
> refer to the
> >incarnation as of John 1:4 EN AUTWi ZWH HN or, as
> some have even
> >suggested, to the resurrection?  How does EDWKEN
> make sense in the
> >light of John 1:4?  I even have trouble with the
> translation
> >*granted*--does any one else?
> 
> hWSPER GAR  hO PATHR ECEI ZWHN EN hEAUTW
> hOUTWS KAI TWi hUIWi EDWKEN ZWHN ECEIN EN hEAUTW
> 
> For just as the Father is having life in Himself
> Thusly even to the Son He gives life in Himself.
> 
> I think it does refer to EN AUTWi ZWH HN in 1:4,
> although I have always 
> understood 1:4 to be pre or pan incarnational ~ That
> is, a permanent 
> attribution of hO LOGOS, who did incarnate.
> 
> Here he simply seems to be attributing the giving of
> His life that is in 
> Himself to the Father, who is the source of His
> having it in himself.
> 
> The HN of 1:4 I have taken to mean 'has always been
> and continues to be and 
> will continue to be' ~ At least in terms or our
> experience of time.  HN 
> places Him 'prior' to ARCH [beginning].  As God's
> Word in the creation, His 
> source is God, who "EDWKEN" to Him life.
> 
> There are surely ressurrectional implications to all
> this, but this little 
> passage does not seem to address them.  The rest of
> this section, however, 
> clearly does. [5:21, 28-9, etc.]
> 
> Am I addressing your question?
> 
> 
> George Blaisdell
> Roslyn, WA
> 
> 
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===
John V. Oaklands
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