John 10:28
Jim West
jwest at Highland.Net
Fri Nov 5 17:29:42 EST 1999
At 08:43 AM 11/5/99 -0600, you wrote:
>OU MH APOLWNTAI from John 10:28 question:
>
>What is the meaning of APOLWNTAI in this sentence? Do you have any
>etymological information or syntax comments on OU MH APOLWNTAI which may
>impact this verse? Any help here would be appreciated.
Its an old verb and is used by Homer for "to destroy or kill" and it is also
used in the NT and some papyri to mean "to lose or suffer from loss", to
perish", "to be lost". Robertson calls it an emphatic double negative (and
he is right). The verb is a second aorist subjunctive.
Is this what you wanted?
>
>Thanks.
>
>David Bielby
>Vineyard Christian Fellowship
>Bloomington/Normal, Illinois USA
>dbielby at juno.com www.bloomington.vineyard.org
>Phone: 309-827-8292
>
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Jim West, ThD
jwest at highland.net
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
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