Matt 19:9

Steve Puluka spuluka at hotmail.com
Mon Oct 4 06:20:47 EDT 1999


>From: dixonps at juno.com
>To: spuluka at hotmail.com
>CC: b-greek at franklin.oit.unc.edu
>Subject: Re: Matt 19:9
>Date: Sun, 3 Oct 1999 16:51:41 -0700
>
>
>The question is, did the early church fathers understand the
>MH EPI PORNEIA of Mt 19:9 as denoting preterition (as excluding
>from consideration the case of PORNEIA) or as denoting the
>negation, that is, if a man divorced his wife because of PORNEIA,
>and remarried, then he did not commit adultery in so doing?
>
>I don't see anything in the translations cited below that suggests
>anything other than the preterition view.
>
>Paul Dixon

I'm not clear on this distinction, but perhaps we are on the same page.  I 
read the Patristic evidence as permiting the divorce only for fornication, 
but not any further marriages for either party.

Beyond that I really can't speak to the grammer distinction on negation or 
exclusion.  Could you elaborate on this please?

Steve Puluka
Adult Education Instructor
Byzantine Catholic Archeparcy of Pittsburgh

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