Titus 2:2
Kevin Smith
kgs at iafrica.com
Wed Oct 6 18:20:41 EDT 1999
Dear friends,
In discussing the use of the Greek infinitive, Daniel Wallace (GGBB, 606) says, "Like any other substantive, the substantival infinitive may stand in apposition to a noun, pronoun, or substantival adjective (or some other substantive)." After further explanation he includes in his list of examples Titus 2:2, in which he says the infinitive is in apposition "to an implied pronoun" (p. 607).
Titus 2:1-2 reads: [1] SU DE LALEI hA PREPEI THi hUGIAINOUSHi DIDASKALIAi. [2] PRESBUTAS NHFALIOUS EINAI, SEMNOUS, SWFRONAS, hUGIAINONTAS THi PISTEI, THi AGAPH, THi hUPOMONHi.
The verse seems to make perfect sense without my needing to supply any pronoun. Can anyone tell me what pronoun Dr Wallace regards as implicit here, and why?
Thanks,
Kevin Smith
Port Elizabeth, SA
kgs at iafrica.com
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