Titus 2:2 (correction)

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Oct 7 06:54:23 EDT 1999


At 7:17 PM -0500 10/6/99, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>At 12:20 AM +0200 10/7/99, Kevin Smith wrote:
>>Dear friends,
>>
>>In discussing the use of the Greek infinitive, Daniel Wallace (GGBB, 606)
>>says, "Like any other substantive, the substantival infinitive may stand
>>in apposition to a noun, pronoun, or substantival adjective (or some
>>other substantive)." After further explanation he includes in his list of
>>examples Titus 2:2, in which he says the infinitive is in apposition "to
>>an implied pronoun" (p. 607).
>>
>>Titus 2:1-2 reads: [1] SU DE LALEI hA PREPEI THi hUGIAINOUSHi
>>DIDASKALIAi. [2] PRESBUTAS NHFALIOUS EINAI, SEMNOUS, SWFRONAS,
>>hUGIAINONTAS THi PISTEI, THi AGAPH, THi hUPOMONHi.
>>
>>The verse seems to make perfect sense without my needing to supply any
>>pronoun. Can anyone tell me what pronoun Dr Wallace regards as implicit
>>here, and why?
>
>Well, there are a couple ways to construe it. I rather suspect that what
>Wallace has in mind is that the entire infinitive phrase PRESBUTAS EINAI
>X, Y, Z, KTL. stands in opposition to the implicit subject of hA PREPEI
>THi hUGIAINOUSHi DIDASKALIAi, which would be perhaps an implicit EKEINA,
>or TAUTA--those things.

For "stands in opposition ..., etc." in the third line of my note, please
read "stands in APPOSITION ... " Perhaps that should have been obvious, but
when I read such things they aren't always obvious to me, so ...


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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