the anaphora of 1 John 3:5 & 8 & the subjunctive

Jay Adkins JAdkins264 at aol.com
Thu Oct 14 07:08:15 EDT 1999


Dear B-Greekers,

Can someone please explain why in the anaphora of 1 John 3:5 & 8 the 
subjunctive verbs are translated like an indicative or an infinitive by so 
many translations?

The phrases are:
1 John 3:5 ....EFANERWQH, INA TAS AMARTIAS ARH  
1 John 3:8 ....EFANERWQH O UIOS TOU QEOU INA LUSH TA ERGA TOU DIABOLOU

1Joh 3:5 (DBY) .... *he* has been manifested that he might take away our 
sins;
1Joh 3:8 (DBY) .... To this end the Son of God has been manifested, that he 
might undo the works of the devil

1Joh 3:5 (NEB) .... Christ appeared, as you know, to do away with sins....
1Joh 3:8 (NEB) .... the Son of God appeared for the very purpose of undoing 
the devil's work.

I have counted 9 translations that treat verse 5 as an indicative or an 
infinitive and 8 as subjunctive.  In verse 8 the same translations treat it 
as an indicative or an infinitive 14 times and only 3 as subjunctive.  I 
understand that the subjunctive in an Indefinite Relative Clause is often 
translated like an indicative, but why in a purpose clause would you do so? 
 Is it because there is a futuristic aspect in the English phrasing which 
accounts for the degree of doubt represented by the subjunctive?  That is 
my only guess as I really do not know the answer.  There is no hidden 
agenda here.

Sola Gratia,
	Jay
Always Under Grace!



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