Matthew 19:9

Steven Craig Miller scmiller at www.plantnet.com
Fri Oct 15 17:00:15 EDT 1999


To: Maurice A. O'Sullivan,

SCM: << The basic meaning of PORNEIA is "prostitution." It seems to be used 
here (and elsewhere in the NT) as an abusive metaphor, somewhat similar to 
referring to a woman as a "whore." >>

MAO: << Harrington suggests otherwise: [ Harrington, Daniel J. The Gospel 
of  Matthew. Sacra Pagina 1. Collegeville, MN: Liturgical Press, 1991.] Hw 
writes on p.273-4: " The term PORNEIA may refer to: (1) sexual misconduct 
on the woman's part or (2) marriage within the degree of kinship forbiden 
by Lv. 18:6-18" However, there is an extensive treatment of this and 
related topics in an article included in both the first and second editions 
of: Fitzmyer, Joseph A. To Advance the Gospel: New Testament Studies. 
Second edition. Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1998. (article "The Matthean 
Divorce Texts and Some New Palestinian Evidence" pp.79-111 ) >>

The first definition which Liddell-Scott-Jones-McKenzie gives for PORNEIA 
is "prostitution." And the first definition which 
Bauer-Arndt-Gringrinch-Danker gives for PORNEIA is also "prostituation."

It also seems to me that you have misunderstood Daniel J. Harrington [1991] 
here. There is nothing in that quotation which might suggests that the 
basic meaning of PORNEIA is not prostitution.

And as for Fitzmyer, it appears you didn't read him too carefully, since he 
supports my point. Fitzmyer [1981:88] writes:

<< Etymologically, it [PORNEIA] means "prostitution, harlotry, whoredom," 
being an abstract noun related to 'porne,' 'harlot,' and to the verb 
'porneuein,' "to act as a harlot." >>

-Steven Craig Miller
Alton, Illinois (USA)
scmiller at www.plantnet.com



More information about the B-Greek mailing list