Philippians 1:1-2
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Sep 4 13:16:42 EDT 1999
At 12:49 PM -0500 9/4/99, Joseph Brian Tucker wrote:
>Carl
>
>[snipped]
>
>Thanks for the very helpful post.
>verse 1
>PAULOS KAI TIMOQEOS DOULOI CRISTOU IHSOU PASIN TOIS hAGIOIS EN CRISTOWi
>IHSOU TOIS OUSIN EN FILIPPOIS SUN EPISKOPOIS KAI DIAKONOIS,
>verse 2
>CARIS hUMIN KAI EIRHNH APO QEOU PATROS hHMWN KAI KURIOU IHSOU CRISTOU.
>
>What verb is implied in verse 2 and what would be its form?
The verb "to be" is commonly omitted in this sort of statement; in this
instance I think what would be called for is a 3d person imperative for
such as ESTW (or if one wants a verb to go with both CARIS and EIRHNH,
ESTWSAN. But older English translations would be "Grace and peace BE to
you"--where the "be" is a subjunctive. But that's pretty archaic English
these days.
>What is the syntactical relationship between QEOU PATROS hMWN KAI KURIOU
>IHSOU CHISTOU? Does this imply a distinction? If this is theological feel
>free to ignore it, my purpose is to understand if the grammar indicates a
>strong distinction.
I think the phrasing suggests that there's a distinction being made, yes,
between two 'persons'--at any rate there's absolutely nothing in the
phraseology of the text here that clearly indicates identity of the two.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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