1 Cor 14:34 -- LALEIN

David Roe d.roe at t-online.de
Wed Sep 8 11:11:39 EDT 1999


Greetings B-Greeks,

I'm a baby-Greek who has appreciated lurking the past few weeks. I
hesitate to solicit help, being unlikely able to return it, and I
hesitate to pose this particular case because of the perhaps
strongly-differing theological views on it. Never-the-less...

1 Cor 14:34

AhI GUNAIKES EN TAIS EKKLHSIAIS SIGATWSAN OU GAP EPITREPETAI AUTAIS
LALEIN...

I interpret the infinitive present tense LALEIN as meaning "be talking,"
and not as "talking." What tense would Paul have used if he had meant to
forbid any talking/speaking? 

Thankful for your help,

David

D. W. Roe
Rheinland-Pfalz, Germany



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