Mark 15:34

Theodore H Mann thmann at juno.com
Thu Apr 20 11:41:07 EDT 2000


Michael:

Welcome to B-Greek.  Not only does the list include wonderful scholars,
but they're all really nice people.

Regarding your question, I think your first choice is probably correct.
Since Aramaic was apparently the language Jesus spoke on a day-to-day
basis, He was probably quoting the Psalm in the tongue He normally used,
just as you and I (even if we knew Hebrew) would quote the same Hebrew
verse in English.

Best.

Ted

Dr. Theodore "Ted" H. Mann / thmann at juno.com
Fax and Voice Mail: 1-562-750-5242
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On Thu, 20 Apr 2000 11:03:33 -0400 Michael Ryle <mryle at mercator.com>
writes:
> Mark 15:34 reports that Jesus cried out in a loud voice: ELWI ELWI 
> LEMA
> SABACQANI;  The Jerome Commentary indicates that this is an Aramaic 
> version
> of Psalm 22:2.  For a long time I have have been curious about this 
> passage.
> Why does Jesus quote the Hebrew scriptures in Aramaic?  On the cross 
> under
> the extreme stress of the moment did he spontaneously translate the 
> psalm as
> he knew it into his own spoken language?  Or was he quoting from an 
> Aramaic
> source, a targum?  If so, why would he quote from that instead of 
> the Hebrew
> which he surely would have known?  In the gospels when Jesus quotes
> scripture, except for this one case, I believe it's true that he 
> always does
> so in Greek -- at least I can't think of another instance.  Why is 
> this case
> different and what does it mean?  I'm curious to know if anyone else 
> has
> wondered about this.
>  
> I am a newcomer both to Biblical Greek and to this list and I would 
> like to
> express my gratitude to Jonathan Robie and the other members of the 
> list for
> the tremendous help you offer to someone like me who is struggling 
> to learn
> how to read the New Testament in the eerily beautiful language in 
> which it
> was written.
> 
> Michael Ryle, North Eastham, MA
> 

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