one, two, or three ... or just one?

Eric S. Weiss eweiss at gte.net
Thu Apr 27 12:29:17 EDT 2000


I Cor. 14:27-28 usually is interpreted/translated to mean that at most two 
or three persons should speak in tongues in a church meeting. But Paul 
keeps the pronouns and verbs in the singular, whereas in vs. 29ff. when he 
similarly discusses prophesying as being also limited to "two or three," he 
uses plural nouns and verbs. So, is it possible to translate or interpret 
vs. 27-28 as meaning something like only one person speaking in tongues, 
but that same person is asked to stop after giving at most two or three 
messages/utterances (or maybe 2 or 3 phrases or even words) before his 
words are "interpreted" (either by him or someone else)?

--

Eric Weiss
non-scholar, non-academic, just 2+ years of Greek



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