1 Tim 2:12

Michael Hildenbrand hildenbr at Haas.Berkeley.EDU
Thu Apr 27 13:16:27 EDT 2000


Please excuse this question if it has been discussed already.  I have a
friend asking me about the relationship of the two clauses in this
verse:  "I do not allow a woman to teach nor (oude) exercise authority
over a man..."  
	The question comes with regard to the relationship of the two
clauses and *oude*.  Does the not allowing "a woman to teach" only relate
to the "man," [that is the sentence is stating that the woman cannot teach
a *man* but can teach women and children] could it be that the first
clause stands independently, and thus a woman is simply not allowed to
teach.  He is affirming the latter, but I cannot figure an objective way
to either deny or affirm his exegesis.
	I am well aware of the ramifications of this question and I am
quite aware of the other passages that relate to this question.  I am
concerned with the syntax of the sentence.

Michael Hildenbrand




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