hOUTOS/EKEINOS

RHutchin at aol.com RHutchin at aol.com
Sun Dec 3 20:07:08 EST 2000


Recently, I was presented with the following argument.  The person cited A 
Primer of Biblical Greek by N. Clayton Croy (Eerdmans, 1999) as stating, 
"Biblical Greek, like English, had a 'near' demonstrative, hOUTOS, for 
something relatively close in time, space or thought, and a 'far' 
demonstrative, EKEINOS, for something relatively distant."

Based on this, the person argues that Jesus, by using the 'near' 
demonstrative, hOUTOS, in Matt 24:34 could only have been referring to those 
to whom he was physically speaking.  Had Jesus wanted to refer to a future 
generation, he would have had to use the word EKEINOS.

Is his argument valid?

Roger Hutchinson
RHutchin at AOL.com



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