Future tense in Psalm 41:5 (LXX)
Jason Hare
language_lover64801 at yahoo.com
Sun Dec 10 14:54:39 EST 2000
Jon,
I think you are misunderstanding what an imperfect is in Hebrew. In Greek,
the imperfect refers to the past. So, we think that "I used to..." is
imperfect (because of the Greek). However, in Hebrew, the imperfect is
most of the time regarded as a future tense. The reason for this is
because it represents incomplete (=imperfect) action. So, Greek and Hebrew
(in a practical sense) have opposite uses of the "imperfect."
Regards,
Jason
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Jason A. Hare
Ozark Christian College
1111 N. Main (Strong 220)
Joplin, MO 64801
(877) 207-3881
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