Future Tense in Psalm 41:5 (LXX)
Jon D. Boyd
johanan at juno.com
Mon Dec 11 16:56:15 EST 2000
Ps. 41:5 (LXX)
TAUTA EMNHSQHN KAI EXECEA EP' EME THN YUCHN MOU hOTI DIELEUSOMAI EN
TOPWi SKHNHS QAUMASTHS hEWS TOU OIKOU TOU QEOU EN FWNHi AGALLIASEWS KAI
EXOMOLOGHSEWS HCOU hEOPTAZONTOS.
My original question was:
> What do you make of this use of the future
> tense? Is this just a bad translation of the underlying Hebrew
(changing
> the sense of the Hebrew text), or can the future tense be used to
> describe something that used to happen?
Steven R. Lo Vullo wrote:
> It may be a bad translation *and* a description of past action. As far
as
> past action is concerned, it all depends on how you understand hOTI. If
it
> is causal, then I don't see any way to take DIELEUSOMAI as past action.
> However, in light of the fact that at least one of the main verbs is a
verb
> of perception, which may have a hOTI clause introducing indirect
discourse
> as its direct object, it is at least possible to take hOTI as a marker
of
> indirect discourse.
This is a very interesting possibility. Does anyone know of any clear
instances where a future tense is embedded within indirect discourse?
Thanks again,
Jonthan Boyd
Ankeny, Iowa (experiencing a blizzard right now)
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