Question on Matthew 19:9

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue Feb 8 06:15:22 EST 2000


At 9:41 PM -0500 2/7/00, broking wrote:
>Does the negative particle in Matthew 19:9 qualify the
>verse as an example of a prohibitory statement in the
>subjunctive mood?  Thanks in advance,
>Darrell Broking

While I have no objection to a new thread on this question, it is one that
has been discussed many times on B-Greek and the archives at our web site
are readily available. The most recent discussion was carried on in the
period from October 1-13, 1999 and focused on two questions: significance
of the negative particle MH, and significance of the present tense in
relationship to two aorists  in the conditional clauses. I cannot imagine
that something different is likely to emerge in a new discussion of these
questions, but my imagination is perhaps rather limited, considering how
many things have happened in the last ten years which seemed wildly
improbable to me. Nevertheless, I think that anyone seriously interested in
this question would do well to consult the B-Greek archives, both the
current set since June of 1998 and the earlier archives from the period
1992 up to that date at the other site.


Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/



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