"In the beginning was the word" (Jn 1:1a)
Joe A. Friberg
JoeFriberg at email.msn.com
Tue Feb 22 20:58:47 EST 2000
----- Original Message -----
From: "Jason Hare" <parousia_occ at yahoo.com>
Sent: Tuesday, February 22, 2000 4:00 PM
> You have stated yourself: << even in English the term "word" does not
> always
> signify a series of letters bounded by spaces on either side. >>
>
> If that is true, and I agree, then why the disagreement at all about what
> hO LOGOS refers to in John 1:1? It is not just a reference to the "Word"
> as in a small unit of speech, but the whole council of God. Jesus is
God's
> wisdom and "message" to this world. He is God's Word to mankind. Can it
> be better put?
>
> Jason
This is an interesting conversation. And I appreciated Stephen Craig
Miller's initiating post which laid out the basic argument that in Greek,
LOGOS would never have referred to the smallest separable unit of speech, or
'word' in the modern 'narrow sense'.
The problem with 'word' in English as a translation of LOGOS is then that
its *primary referrent* is to the 'narrow sense'. There is, then, a marked
mismatch between the Gk LOGOS and the English 'word', which causes trouble
for the English reader. What English reader, without prior theological
traning, and especially without access to Gk usage of LOGOS in philosophical
texts, etc., would be able to immediately guess that 'word' in Jn 1.1 did
not refer to its primary 'narrow sense'? There's the rub.
I have led Bible studies with moderately Christianized, well-educated,
quite-literate adults, who were essentially stumped by what 'Word' could
mean in Jn 1.1. They are really not to be faulted, for what is there in the
immediate context to give the clue that 'expression' 'utterance' or
'message' would be better at expressing the Gk in English translation? Such
a simple and basic understanding of LOGOS had to be explained as a
metaphorical or extended sense of 'word'. The primary sense was too strong
to be second-guessed.
Note that in the common expressions in which 'word' is used in an extended
sense provide specific contextual clues that they are special, idiomatic,
senses of 'word'. Here are some entries taken from the RHW dictionary; I
have put *astericks* around the contextual clues:
3. a short talk or conversation: May I *have a* word *with* you?. [and
another example I would add:] *have the last* word
4. an expression or utterance: a word *of* warning.
5. warrant, assurance, or promise: I *give* you *my*[possessive] word *I'll
be there*[substance of promise].
6. news; tidings; information: We *received* word *of* an uprising.
8. an authoritative utterance or command: His word *was law*.
11. a proverb or motto. [my example:] *a* word *to the wise* is sufficient
Hence, I would conclude that, absent any contextual clues that indicate the
use of an appropriate English idiom in which 'word' is to be taken in an
extended or metaphorical sense, to translate LOGOS as 'word' is misleading.
It leads to an anachronous reading of texts such as Jn 1.1 by most readers.
I suspect SCM is right in tracing the influence of the Vulgate in the
standard English rendering (you did say that, right?).
A different translation should be sought. To stick with the traditional
rendering undertranslates the text. It does not complete the job of
translation, leaving the reader in need of additional/extra-textual
instruction as to what the sense of 'word' could possibly be in this
context.
God bless!
Joe A. Friberg
More information about the B-Greek
mailing list