Matthew 5:31-32 (Divorce)

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Wed Feb 23 17:47:59 EST 2000


In a message dated 2/23/2000 5:19:55 PM Central Daylight Time, 
parousia_occ at yahoo.com writes:

<< 
 How could Jesus, talking about morals, imply that if I don’t like my wife I 
 can divorce her and SHE be guilty of adultery???  Wouldn't it be more 
 likely that the passive word «MOICEUQHNAI» is to show that she is 
 victimized by his decision?  It is like: He divorces her and she is 
 “adulterated” by him.  Doesn’t that make more sense??
  >>

This was a bit of a puzzle to me too.  There is one thing, however, that 
changes the significance of the entire passage.  That is the one word POIEI.  
She may commit adultery (in the legal sense of the term), but he is the 
cause.  Who bears the responsibility?

gfsomsel



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