Temple and New world translation of holy scriptures?

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Tue Jan 4 14:56:57 EST 2000


In a message dated 1/4/2000 12:45:22 PM Central Daylight Time, 
scmiller at www.plantnet.com writes:

<< 
 It would be one thing to put in a footnote for Mt 4:4 a translation of the 
 Hebrew text of Deuteronomy 8:3 which uses the term "Yahweh" (as the NJB 
 translates the Hebrew). But to place the term "Yahweh" into Matthew's text 
 at Mt 4:4 appears unconscionable. One is NO LONGER translating, rather one 
 is doing very speculative historical reconstruction. Even if we knew for a 
 fact that Jesus spoke Aramaic or Hebrew and not Greek (which we don't), we 
 don't even know for a fact that Jesus would have spoken the word "Yahweh" 
 (or anything similar; as opposed to using "Adonai" or something similar). 
 Introducing "Yahweh" or "Jehovah" into a translation of the Greek text of 
 the NT seems to me to be a gross violation of any reasonable norms of 
 translation. >>

Yet, is this any less objectionable than translating ) ADELFOI as "brothers 
and sisters" with the NRSV?  This is one of my pet peaves regarding an 
otherwise good job.

george



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