The Epistolary Plural in 1 John 1:4?

Ilvgrammta at aol.com Ilvgrammta at aol.com
Tue Jan 4 17:37:51 EST 2000


In a message dated 00-01-04 12:10:11 EST, cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu writes:

<< I would think so and in fact I can't imagine an alternative to this view;
 certainly he does not list at the outset additional senders (as Paul
 frequently does, even when Paul writes in the first person singular). Of
 course 1 John is a treatise or sermon rather than a real letter, but it
 uses the literary form of the letter as was commonly done in antiquity for
 short treatises, and the first-plural or "editorial" we is pretty common.>>

I asked this question because (1) I did not know if this use was prevalent in 
the first century (2) The usage in 1 John 1:4 has been debated.

Young indicates that the plural in 1 John 1:4 is a literary plural. Smalley, 
in his Word Series Commentary, interprets the plural as "we (the writer, in 
solidarity with all the representatives of orthodoxy in the church) are 
writing this." Brown feels that what John writes "bears more than personal 
authorization--it is Community tradition from the Community 
tradition-bearers" (Young 73-74). 

Here is what Wallace writes:

"Is the Elder writing alone or in association with others? Complicating the 
issue is the fact that in vv 5 and 6 the plural continues, but each time with 
a different force: In v 5 it seems to refer to the author and other 
ministers; in v 6, it is an inclusive WE (the author and audience together). 
The author uses GRAFW another dozen times in this letter, but each time in 
the singular" (Wallace 396).

Hope this adds to the discussion,

Edgar Foster



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