perfect PROISTHMI...

Maurice A. O'Sullivan mauros at iol.ie
Thu Jul 6 06:57:56 EDT 2000


At 10:37 06/07/00, Roe wrote:
>Why do most (all?) versions translate PROISTHMI in the present tense
>here?

Because, as Smyth succinctly puts it,:
 >>When the perfect marks the enduring result, rather than the completed 
act, it may often be translated by the present>>

A common example given is OIDA (I have discovered = I know )

For this and other examples, you can read section 1946, on the _ perfecta 
praesentia_ and 1947, on the _intensive_ perfects,
Go to:
http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/ptext?doc=Perseus:abo:sec,000

Or you may care to use the Berlin mirror-site:
http://perseus.mpiwg-berlin.mpg.de/


and enter 1946 in the search box.
Maurice A. O'Sullivan  [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros at iol.ie






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