I Cor. 6:11/apelousasthe

lws39 at juno.com lws39 at juno.com
Thu Jul 13 21:09:46 EDT 2000


Apelousasthe is middle in form. Why do most versions translate it as
passive? Hans Conzelmann (I Corinthians) says it is passive on the
"analogy of the succeeding passives." He does refer to Bachmann(?) and
Robertson/Plummer who translate it as a middle.  In a grammar by Allen,
"First Year of Greek,"  it says that middles are "either middle or
passive in sense, according to the verb or the context."  Can anyone
direct me to other sources on this? thanks.	
Walt Seevers
missoula,mt



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