to be hAMARTIAN

Jason Hare parousia_occ at yahoo.com
Mon Jul 31 00:56:07 EDT 2000


I'm sorry that I take so long to reply.  I have not really been staying 
caught up with the posts.  :-)

Anyway, about this verbless phrase (TON MH GNONTA hAMARTIAN hUPER hHMWN 
hAMARTIAN EPOIHSEN), the 'to be' that is inserted so often in the English 
is probably adopted from the verb-supplied phrase in the second part of the 
verse: 'hINA hHMEIS GENWMEQA DIKAIOSUNH QEOU EN AUTWi.'  So we see that 'he 
(assumed "God") made the one not having known sin *to become* sin for us, 
so that we might become the righteousness of God in him (i.e., in the one 
who knew no sin).'

The point is that *to be* is justified because: (1) it is a verbless clause 
and it is normal to insert equative verbs in verbless clauses and (2) *to 
be* is adopted from *to become* (GINOMAI).  Just some thoughts.

God bless,

Jason Hare
Ozark Christian College



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