EGENETO

B.J. Williamson hellen_ic at hotmail.com
Wed Jun 21 15:48:42 EDT 2000



Lucky:

Carl wrote:

----
So far as John 1:6 is concerned, I would say there's an implicit contrast 
between 1:6 EGENETO ANQRWPOS APESTALMENOS PARA QEOU and 1:14 KAI hO LOGOS 
SARX EGENETO; I think John means to set off John "the Baptist" from the 
incarnate Word by (1) signaling his importance as a divinely-sent emissary 
while at the same time (2) sharply distinguishing him from Jesus as Word and 
Light.
------

I would perhaps add that this "implicit" contrast of verse 14 (concerning 
the LOGOS) has an "explicit" contrast with verse 1 as well, where we are 
told that the LOGOS EN ARCHi HN.

That is, in verse 1, we are told that the LOGOS was existing (HN) at the 
point of this indefinite "beginning." (In fact, you could pick ANY 
beginning, and the statement regarding the LOGOS here would be true.) And in 
verse 14, the LOGOS became (EGENETO) flesh. The contrast then being that the 
LOGOS was in existence PRIOR TO this "beginning," while the LOGOS became 
("took on") flesh AFTER this "beginning."

Your question as to John's purpose of "introducing the Christ" seems to be 
"explicitly" stated in the next verse (7) from the one you originally cited, 
hOUTOS HLQEN EIS MARTURIAN. Here, John's purpose is to  bear witness of the 
Light, himself not being that Light.

Respectfully,

B. J. Williamson


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