Hebrews 4:8

Joel Barnes overshadowed at hotmail.com
Thu Mar 9 19:31:10 EST 2000


Hi,

This is my first post to the b-greek forum.

My question concerns Hebrews 4:8 which reads as follows in the Authorized 
Version:

"For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken 
of another day"

My question is this:  the word "he" is translated "God" in the New 
International Version but is left ambiguous in the Authorized Version.  Why? 
  Is it that in the Greek text, the word "he" is a reflexive pronoun 
referring back to the subject of verse 7 thereby allowing the translation 
"God" instead of "he"?

yours in the Lord,

Joel Barnes

3rd Year Kinesiology Student
University of New Brunswick
Canada
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