well-known rule of syntax
John E Montanez
JEMontanez at email.msn.com
Sun Oct 8 18:38:44 EDT 2000
Hello,
I have never posted anything to this list before because I am only a beginner in Greek. I have been reading what all of you post here on a regular basis for quite a few months now and I respect and admire your expertise. I have a question about the following that I need your help with. I know that 1 John 5:7-8 is controversial theologically. My question only has to do with grammar though, so I think it is appropriate for this list. I would really like to know your opinion.
HOTI TREIS EISIN HOI MARTUROUNTES (EN TO OURANO, HO PATER, HO LOGOS, KAI TO HAGION PNEUMA; KAI HOUTOI HOI TREIS HEN EISI.
KAI TREIS EISIN HOI MARTUROUTES EN TE GE) TO PNEUMA, KAI TO HUDOR, KAI TO HAIMA; KAI HOI TREIS EIS TO HEN EISIN.
I am not asking that you get involved in any theological implications. I am just interested in whether or not the above is grammatically correct if the part in parenthesis is left out as in the following.
HOTI TREIS EISIN HOI MARTUROUNTES
TO PNEUMA, KAI TO HUDOR, KAI TO HAIMA; KAI HOI TREIS EIS TO HEN EISIN.
I am being told in an article by Robert Louis Dabney (1871) that, in the above, "if the part in parenthesis is left out then "the masculine article, numeral, and participle, oi treij marturountej, are made to agree directly with three neuters - an insuperable and very bald grammatical difficulty. But if the disputed words are allowed to stand, they agree directly with the two masculines and one neuter noun - o Pater (o Logoj (kai to agion Pneuma - where, according to a well-known rule of syntax, the masculines among the group control the gender over a neuter connected with them. Then the occurrence of the masculines treij marturountej in the eighth verse agreeing with the neuters, pneuma, udor, and aima may be accounted for by the power of attraction, so well known in Greek syntax, and by the fact that the pneuma, the leading noun of this second group, and next to the adjectives, has just had a species of masculiness superinduced upon it by its previous position in the masculine group."
Others are telling me that there is no such rule in Greek grammar. Please tell me if this rule of syntax exists and if there is such a thing as power of attraction.
Thank you,
John E Montanez-Lopez
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