Smart's rule and John 20:28
One of the McKays
musicke at ozemail.com.au
Wed Oct 25 06:15:54 EDT 2000
>
> PS For those who have asked, Smart's rule has not been published.
> However, it is my understanding that Sharp's rule is accepted by
> most because of the fact that it has no exceptions. I have found no
> exceptions to Smart's rule. Therefore, anyone who accepts Sharps should
> also accept Smarts, agreed?
This does not follow, Dan.
I can follow Granville Sharp's rule. It makes perfect sense. Properly
understood, I don't see that there are exceptions to it.
But I can't see that because we accept Sharp, we must automatically accept
Smart. Smart's rule does not seem to make sense to me. I am not convinced of
the need for it. Is its sole purpose to reinterpret John 20:28?
David McKay
musicke at ozemail.com.au
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