Luke 1:35
J. Garnier
nomre2me at home.com
Mon Sep 4 01:54:30 EDT 2000
>At 10:18 04/09/00, "Rosangela Lira" <lira at escelsa.com.br> wrote:
>>Luke 1:35 says, "KAI TO GENNWMENON hAGION KLHQHSETAI hUIOS QEOU". It seems
>>the word GENNWMENON doesn't appear in all the manuscripts.
>On 04 Sep 2000, "Maurice A. O'Sullivan" <mauros at iol.ie>responded:
>Moule's view [ Moule, C.F.D. An Idiom Book of N.T Greek. Cambridge: C.U.P,
>1984.] at p.107 this is " a distinctly irregular usage " As against this
>treatment of hAGION as a substantative, the commnetators prefer the
>predicate use, either in a verbless clause " will be holy" " will be called
>Son of God " or as the predicate of KLHQHSETAI
>i.e as you quote:
My questions: isn't TO GENNWMENON hAGION a nominative phrase in which GENNWMENON is a further development of the idea TO hAGION? Is there precedent for breaking the phrase apart, and inserting TO hAGION in the predicate, as Moule suggests?
>The Modern King James Version
>puts it: "Therefore also that Holy Being who shall be born of thee shall be
>called the Son of God"; the New King James Version renders it:
>"Therefore,
>also, that Holy One who is to be born will be called the Son of God";
Is there extra-biblical documentation enabling the neuter to be rendered being or one? I understand that thing (as in KJV) is distasteful to our ears, but if that is what it says, are we not obligated to translate accordingly?
Joseph Garnier
Seattle WA
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