Periphrastic Question
Carlton Winbery
winberyc at speedgate.net
Wed Sep 20 14:07:56 EDT 2000
>Could someone remind me or explain to me the periphrastic construction in
>John 3.21:
>... hINA FANERWQHi AUTOU TA ERGA hOTI EN QEWi ESTIN EIPGASMENA
>
>I understand why ESTIN is singular (neuter plural subjects take a
>singular verb), but why is the participle, EIPGASMENA, not singular also?
>Obviously it is controlled by the noun, but why?
>
>Rob Matlack
>620 E. 5th St., Minneapolis, KS 67467
>
>RMatlack at juno.com Hm: 785-392-2865 Church: 785-392-2089
>"...that we may present every man mature in Christ Jesus."
>
Rob, the participle used predicatively (like a predicate adjective) has to
agree with the subject TA ERGA. "in order that his works may be made
evident that they (the works) have been wrought in God."
Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
Foggleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
winbery at speedgate.net
winbery at andria.lacollege.edu
Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off
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