Eph 1:4/5 "in love"

Mark Wilson emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Sat Sep 23 09:51:51 EDT 2000




Wayne wrote in response to my response:

>Subject: [b-greek] Re: Eph 1:4/5 "in love"
-----
There appear to be very few cases of intended ambiguity in scripture. This 
is not surprising because ambiguity in serious literary would be confusing 
to a writer's audience, and few biblical writers likely wanted to confuse.

There are *no* certainties in any of my claims in this message, but, rather, 
a strong tilt of the odds from what we know about language usage around the 
world.
----



Something, and I am not sure exactly what, just doesn't settle well with me 
concerning this comment. I am seeking help.

First, Wayne has introduced an element that I had not considered: 
intentional ambiguity.

I will have to put my "position" on hold
with this new development  :o )

But my initial thought was: that is irrelevent. The issue is not "WHY" it is 
ambiguous, but "THAT" it is ambiguous.

However, the final paragraph above causes me concern. And maybe it 
shouldn't.

To me, translating, which I certainly will not even remotely attempt to 
match Wayne's scholarship here, is not about "probabilities" or "strong 
tilt" or "gut feeling" as far as I am concerned (for the time being).

I have no idea if what I am suggesting is humanly impossible, but if we are 
not sure of a particular translation, should not our translations indicate 
those areas somehow?

Now this is not to suggest that we make some kind of disclaimer every time 
we decide on a particular Gentitive usage. Why? Because choosing one kind of 
Gentitive as opposed to another is a grammatical, or lower-level, issue, 
where personal preference is what distinguishes one translator from another. 
However, choosing one ambiguous construction over another is a theological, 
or higher-level, issue.

Sorry, but that is best way I can describe it.

Can anyone help me understand what I am saying?  :o )

OFFLIST responses are always welcome.

Thank you,

Mark Wilson



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