further to james 1.1 does romans 2.5 help?

Adrian Warnock adrian at xtn.org
Mon Apr 9 03:31:08 EDT 2001



----- Original Message -----
From: "Adrian Warnock" <warnocks at xtn.org>
To: "Al Jacobson" <abj at the-bridge.net>; "Biblical Greek"
<b-greek at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Monday, April 09, 2001 8:19 AM
Subject: Re: [b-greek] further to james 1.1 does romans 2.5 help?


> thanks for this email response Al  sorry about my lazy transliteration
> folks!, I am new to the list and greek but interested in both!
> This genitive business still confuses me tho- it seems to me that its
> actually ambiguous- how do we KNOW that the interpretation you have given
is
> correct- how would the writers have put it if they wanted to state that
> Jesus was God and master of James the servant. And on a more general note
> how on earth do we tell which of the many different types of genitive a
> certain example is- or are we reading things into the greeek we shouldnt
be-
> is the whole point that the genitive is slightly ambiguos and simply
implies
> some kind of assocication between two nouns without really defining as we
> would in English what that relationship is. Take for example the old
> chestnut of subjective vs objective genitive- how can we know for sure
which
> one is meant in a given situation- should we instead just admit that all
we
> really know is that it is a genitive of association as it were?
> adrian warnock
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Al Jacobson" <abj at the-bridge.net>
> To: "B-Greek" <b-greek at franklin.oit.unc.edu>; "Adrian Warnock"
> <adrian at xtn.org>
> Sent: Sunday, April 08, 2001 10:58 PM
> Subject: RE: [b-greek] further to james 1.1 does romans 2.5 help?
>
>
> > Adrian wrote:
> >
> > <ejn hJmevra/ ojrgh`" kai; ajpokaluvyew" dikaiokrisiva" tou` qeou` 6
> >
> > <here three nomintive nouns appear with and after the first, the link
with
> > <God at the end of the first seem to make it clear that they all reflect
> > <different aspects of the same thing- does this help us think James 1.1
> > could
> > <be interpreseted in a similar way?
> > <adrian
> >
> >
> > You mean "genitive nouns" don't you Adrian?
> >
> > I have ignored this thread for the most part up to now, so I assume
> anything
> > I contribute has been said better by others (or even refuted ably by
> > others).  But I'm tired of working on my normal work so I'll venture my
> two
> > cents in this discussion.  I do this without having been fed by any of
the
> > real meat that has been offered.  See what perverse responses innocent
> typos
> > will get you, Adrian?
> >
> > Strictly speaking, in the phrase you quoted DIKAIOKRISIAS modifies
> > (describes, further delineates) APOKALUPSEWS.  The day is one of wrath
and
> > also one of revelation of the just sentence of God.  The dative noun
> hHMERA
> > is modified (limited, described, delineated or however you want to say
it)
> > by ORGHS and APOKALUPSEWS.  APOKALUPSEWS with its modifiers form one
> > substantival phrase with respect to hHMERA.  (Interestingly, however, in
> my
> > version of the Byzantine/Majority text platform there is a KAI between
> > APOKALUPSEWS and DIKAIOKRISIAS.  That WOULD make three genitive nouns
> > modifying hHMERA.)
> >
> > In James 1:1, IAKWBOS and its predicate nominative (or some would say
"its
> > appositive" (or whatever), DOULOS, form a structural parentheses of
sorts
> > around the words between.  All of the intervening words modify
(describe,
> > explain, etc.,etc.)DOULOS.  So one could use the following shorthand
(I'm
> > not a professional linguist as you can plainly see):
> >
> > Noun/(N or NP) + <genitive>/Modifier/(M)(QEOU)
> >
> > Conjunction/(C)
> >
> > <genitive>/M(consisting of three words: KURIOU, IHSOU XRISTOU).
> >
> > I haven't been following the thread, but I'm guessing the questions have
> > been whether QEOU AND KURIOU refer to the Father and the Son,
respectively
> > or whether they refer to one and the same person, namely IHSOU XRISTOU.
> >
> > Perhaps some on the listserve have already cited word studies of
> > collocations like this in support of their opinions.  If the work(s)
cited
> > stud(y)(ies) this very collocation or some very similar collocation of
> > words, and if it is somehow absolutely, irrefutably clear from some of
the
> > contexts in which the collocation is found that one
> > interpretation/translation is superior to the other, I certainly think
it
> be
> > weighty evidence.  (Otherwise one might simply have a whole bunch of
> places
> > where there is the same question, but not necessarily any insight into
the
> > answer.)  My own instinct, based solely at this point upon nothing but
> what
> > my years of reading Greek lead me to believe is the natural
understanding
> in
> > its context, is that QEOU and KURIOU refer to 2 distinct persons.
> >
> > As to your suggestion that the construction in Romans 2:5 helps, what do
> you
> > think?  To me it would tend to support the position I have taken in the
> > preceding paragraph since two separate and distinct concepts are
> describing
> > the same noun.  In Romans, the day is described as one both of wrath and
> of
> > the revelation of God's just verdict.  These are two separate aspects of
> the
> > day that are not semantically the same thing, since one does not
> necessarily
> > imply the other.  In James, James is a servant who is both a servant of
> God
> > (as Christ in the Gospels often refers to His heavenly Father) and a
> servant
> > of the Lord Jesus Christ.  Again, one does not necessarily imply the
other
> > from a linguistic or grammatical point of view.  Theology enters in here
> and
> > that's where I'll stop.
> >
> > Having said that, I'm certain I could make an argument for the position
> that
> > QEOU and KURIOU refer to the same person, namely IHSOU XRISTOU.  But I
> would
> > not really believe my own argument.
> >
> > abj
> >
> > Allen B. Jacobson
> > 2024 2nd Avenue East
> > Hibbing, MN 55746
> > 218.262.1070
> > abj at the-bridge.net
> >
> > B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
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> >
> >
> >
>




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