Lk 18:13; TWi hAMARTWLWi

Steven Lo Vullo doulos at merr.com
Sat Dec 1 01:04:19 EST 2001



On Thursday, November 29, 2001, at 07:42  AM, Iver Larsen wrote:

> Excuse me for not having a copy of Wallace. My question is: Does he
> recognize the use of the Greek article which corresponds to a relative
> pronoun in English?

No, Iver, at least not in any way that could apply to Luke 18.13. First 
of all, he establishes some very specific parameters for understanding 
the article as having the *force* of a relative pronoun. It is confined, 
in his opinion, to the use of the article with second and third 
attributive positions in which the modifier is not an adjective, i.e., 
when it is (a) a genitive phrase (as in 1 Cor 1.18), (b) a prepositional 
phrase (as in Matt 6:9), or (c) a participle (as in Mark 4:15).

Secondly, he is very careful to point out that he thinks this is NOT a 
Greek way of looking at things, but an English way:

"To say that the article is functioning like a relative pronoun is only 
an English way of looking at the matter. Thus it is not truly the 
semantic force of the article. The article is still dependent on a noun 
or other substantive. It typically bears an anaphoric force, pointing 
back to the substantive with which it has concord. We translate it as a 
relative pronoun because this is less cumbersome than something like 
'our Father, the [one] in heaven.'"
=============

Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI




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