John 9.41

Steven Lo Vullo doulos at merr.com
Fri Dec 28 21:28:30 EST 2001


On Friday, December 28, 2001, at 05:17  PM, Mark Hilditch wrote:

> Why would MENEI not be present tense?

Hi Mark:

It's not so much that it *wouldn't* be present tense as that MENEI 
itself, without accent, could be present or future. With an acute on the 
penult, it is present active (cf. John 1.39); with a circumflex on the 
ultima, future active (cf. 1 Cor 3.14). Since the accents are probably 
not original, liquid verbs of this type are sometimes ambiguous, and a 
careful analysis of the context is necessary to determine which tense 
the verb is. I personally think MENEI in John 9.41 is present tense, but 
considerations other than accent or morphology lead me in that direction.
--------------------

Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI




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