John 9.41
Steven Lo Vullo
doulos at merr.com
Fri Dec 28 21:28:30 EST 2001
On Friday, December 28, 2001, at 05:17 PM, Mark Hilditch wrote:
> Why would MENEI not be present tense?
Hi Mark:
It's not so much that it *wouldn't* be present tense as that MENEI
itself, without accent, could be present or future. With an acute on the
penult, it is present active (cf. John 1.39); with a circumflex on the
ultima, future active (cf. 1 Cor 3.14). Since the accents are probably
not original, liquid verbs of this type are sometimes ambiguous, and a
careful analysis of the context is necessary to determine which tense
the verb is. I personally think MENEI in John 9.41 is present tense, but
considerations other than accent or morphology lead me in that direction.
--------------------
Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI
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