James 1:13 final follow-up

Mark Wilson emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Fri Jan 26 17:17:23 EST 2001



James 1:13 follow-up

hO GAR QEOS APEIRASTOS ESTI KAKWN

An offlist response suggested this translation for
this troublesome clause:

"because God does not tempt in an evil way (evilly, KAKWN)"

Now I am back to this second clause as part of James'
response to the claim "I am being tempted by God."

Claimant:   I am being tempted by God

James:   (Impossible!) for God does not tempt in an evil manner;
          in fact (DE), he himself tempts no one.

I take it then that verses 13 and 14 form a close union and therefore
justify this change from test to tempt. Here, James qualifies why
it is wrong to say I am "tempted" (not tested) by God. Why? Because
God does not tempt in an evil sense (unlike testing for our good).

To date, this is the only suggestion that makes smooth sense
of the awkward, seemingly out of place middle clause.

Any thoughts,

Mark Wilson





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