1 John 1:5
DJNordlund at aol.com
DJNordlund at aol.com
Fri Mar 23 01:58:53 EST 2001
I have a question about the translation of the end of 1 John 1:5.
... KAI SKOTIA EN AUTWi OUK ESTIN OUDEMIA
I am a rank amateur with Greek, but the usual translation "...and in him is
no darkness at all" (or some variation) seems awkward. I was wondering if
rendering this as "... because of him, darkness is not meaningless" is a
possibility. This would seem to fit John's apparent rejection of the
thinking of some gnostics that sin of the flesh is unimportant. But I may
just be guilty of bad translation or engaging in eisegesis.
Are there other examples of this construction that I might look at that would
help clarify this for me?
Thanks in advance,
Dan Nordlund
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