1 John 1:5

DJNordlund at aol.com DJNordlund at aol.com
Fri Mar 23 01:58:53 EST 2001


I have a question about the translation of the end of 1 John 1:5. 

... KAI SKOTIA EN AUTWi OUK ESTIN OUDEMIA

I am a rank amateur with Greek, but the usual translation "...and in him is 
no darkness at all" (or some variation) seems awkward.  I was wondering if 
rendering this as "... because of him, darkness is not meaningless" is a 
possibility.  This would seem to fit John's apparent rejection of the 
thinking of some gnostics that sin of the flesh is unimportant.  But I may 
just be guilty of bad translation or engaging in eisegesis.  

Are there other examples of this construction that I might look at that would 
help clarify this for me?

Thanks in advance,

Dan Nordlund

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