John 2:23
backusfam1 at bluefrognet.net
backusfam1 at bluefrognet.net
Wed Apr 3 13:28:32 EST 2002
My question is in regard to John 2:23 as to the use of the dative plural of the
word Jerusalem in the Greek text. Why is this in the plural form? In numerous
other passages the singular form is used, but for some reason he used the
plural here. Can you shed some light on this? I understand that the word
Jerusalem undergoes a certain Hellenisation, but why use a plural form as a
referent? I checked the critical apparatus in some of the Greek texts, as well
as the various Greek texts, and they all use the same plural form, so I know
that it is not a textual variant. I would appreciate any help you could
provide.
Thank you,
Vance Backus
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