John 2:23

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Wed Apr 3 20:57:24 EST 2002


In a message dated 4/3/2002 1:39:33 PM Eastern Standard Time, 
backusfam1 at bluefrognet.net writes:

hWS DE HN EN TOIS hIEROSOLUMOIS EN TWi PASXA . . .
   
   My question is in regard to John 2:23 as to the use of the dative plural 
of the 
word Jerusalem in the Greek text.  Why is this in the plural form?  In 
numerous 
other passages the singular form is used, but for some reason he used the 
plural here.  Can you shed some light on this?  I understand that the word 
Jerusalem undergoes a certain Hellenisation, but why use a plural form as a 
referent?  I checked the critical apparatus in some of the Greek texts, as 
well 
as the various Greek texts, and they all use the same plural form, so I know 
that it is not a textual variant.  I would appreciate any help you could 
provide.
________________________

It's always good to check the entry in a good lexicon.  BGAD has this 
information under hIEROSOLUMA (summarized)

"1. The name refers—a. to the city itself . . . . b. to its inhabitants"

gfsomsel



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